Unique Top-selling 312-97 Exams - New 2026 ECCouncil Pratice Exam [Q48-Q67]

Unique Top-selling 312-97 Exams - New 2026 ECCouncil Pratice Exam

Certified DevSecOps Engineer Dumps 312-97 Exam for Full Questions - Exam Study Guide

NEW QUESTION # 48
(DWART is an IT company that develops cyber security software and web applications. The organization ensures that all users should be identified and authorized, enforces proper auditing, secures data at rest, ensures that the attacker cannot bypass the security layers, implements multiple layers of defense, maintains proper data integrity, and performs proper input validation for the application. Based on the above-mentioned information, which of the following secure coding principles is achieved by DWART?.)

• A. Secure by design.
• B. Secure by implementation.
• C. Secure by communication.
• D. Secure by default.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The practices described-user identification and authorization, auditing, defense-in-depth, data protection, integrity enforcement, and input validation-are core elements that are planned and architected into the system from the beginning. These controls reflectSecure by Design, which focuses on embedding security principles at the design and architecture stage rather than adding them later. Secure by implementation emphasizes coding correctness, secure by default focuses on default configurations, and secure by communication focuses on trusted communication channels. DWART's approach shows a holistic security mindset that anticipates attacker behavior and integrates layered defenses and controls into the system blueprint. This aligns directly with Secure by Design, which aims to reduce systemic risk by ensuring the application's foundational structure enforces security consistently across all components and use cases.
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NEW QUESTION # 49
(Richard Branson has been working as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company since the past 7 years. He has launched an application in a container one month ago. Recently, he modified the container and would like to commit the changes to a new image. Which of the following commands should Branson use to save the current state of the container as a new image?.)

• A. container push.
• B. docker push.
• C. container commit.
• D. docker commit.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The docker commit command is used to create a new Docker image from the current state of a running or stopped container. This is useful when changes have been made interactively inside a container and need to be preserved as a reusable image. Commands such as docker push are used to upload images to a registry, not to create them, and container commit or container push are not valid Docker CLI commands. While docker commit can be helpful for quick snapshots or debugging, it is generally recommended to use Dockerfiles for reproducible builds in production pipelines. In the Build and Test stage, understanding docker commit helps DevSecOps engineers capture container changes for analysis, testing, or troubleshooting.
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NEW QUESTION # 50
(Frances Fisher joined TerraWolt Pvt. Ltd. as a DevSecOps engineer in 2020. On February 1, 2022, his organization became a victim of cyber security attack. The attacker targeted the network and application vulnerabilities and compromised some important functionality of the application. To secure the organization against similar types of attacks, Franches used a flexible, accurate, low maintenance vulnerability management and assessment solution that continuously scans the network and application vulnerabilities and provides daily updates and specialized testing methodologies to catch maximum detectable vulnerabilities.
Based on the above-mentioned information, which of the following tools is Frances using?)

• A. Shadow Daemon.
• B. Black Duck.
• C. BeSECURE.
• D. SonarQube.

Answer: C

Explanation:
BeSECURE is a vulnerability management and assessment solution designed for continuous scanning of both network and application vulnerabilities. It emphasizes flexibility, accuracy, low maintenance overhead, and frequent updates to vulnerability detection mechanisms. These characteristics align directly with the scenario described, where the organization requires continuous scanning, daily updates, and specialized testing methodologies to detect a wide range of vulnerabilities. SonarQube focuses on static code quality and security analysis during development, Black Duck is primarily used for open-source software composition analysis, and Shadow Daemon is a web application firewall rather than a comprehensive vulnerability management solution. Using BeSECURE during the Operate and Monitor stage allows organizations to maintain ongoing visibility into their security posture, detect new vulnerabilities as they emerge, and reduce the likelihood of repeat attacks by addressing weaknesses proactively.
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NEW QUESTION # 51
(Charlotte Flair is a DevSecOps engineer at Egma Soft Solution Pvt. Ltd. Her organization develops software and applications related to supply chain management. Charlotte would like to integrate Sqreen RASP tool with Slack to monitor the application at runtime for malicious activities and block them before they can damage the application. Therefore, she created a Sqreen account and installed Sqreen Microagent. Now, she would like to install the PHP microagent. To do so, she reviewed the PHP microagent's compatibility, then she signed in to Sqreen account and noted the token in Notepad. Which of the following commands should Charlotte run in the terminal to install the PHP extension and the Sqreen daemon?.)

• A. curl -shttps://download.sqreen.com/php/install.sh< sqreen-install.sh \ && bash sqreen-install.sh
  [CHARLOTTE'S ORG TOKEN HERE] "[ CHARLOTTE'S APP NAME HERE]".
• B. curl -shttps://download.sqreen.com/php/install.sh> sqreen-install.sh \ && bash sqreen-install.sh
  [CHARLOTTE'S ORG TOKEN HERE] "[ CHARLOTTE'S APP NAME HERE]".
• C. curl -ihttps://download.sqreen.com/php/install.sh< sqreen-install.sh \ && bash sqreen-install.sh
  [CHARLOTTE'S ORG TOKEN HERE] "[ CHARLOTTE'S APP NAME HERE]".
• D. curl -ihttps://download.sqreen.com/php/install.sh> sqreen-install.sh \ && bash sqreen-install.sh
  [CHARLOTTE'S ORG TOKEN HERE] "[ CHARLOTTE'S APP NAME HERE]".

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct installation procedure for the Sqreen PHP microagent involves downloading the installer script and executing it with the organization token and application name. The curl -s option downloads the script silently, while the > redirection operator saves it locally as sqreen-install.sh. The script is then executed using bash, passing the required token and app name as parameters. Options using input redirection (<) are incorrect because they do not save the downloaded script to a file. The -i option includes HTTP headers in the output, which is unnecessary and could corrupt the script. Installing the microagent correctly enables runtime monitoring, attack detection, and automatic blocking, supporting strong runtime security during the Operate and Monitor stage.
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NEW QUESTION # 52
(Scott Morrison is working as a senior DevSecOps engineer at SUTRE SOFT Pvt. Ltd. His organization develops software and applications for IoT devices. Scott created a user story; he then created abuser stories under the user story. After that, he created threat scenarios under the abuser story, and then he created test cases for the threat scenarios. After defining the YAML, Scott would like to push the user-story driven threat model to the ThreatPlaybook server. Which of the following command Scott should use?.)

• A. playbook apply feature -f < path to the yaml file > -t test-project.
• B. playbook apply feature -f < path to the yaml file > -p test-project.
• C. playbook apply feature -y < path to the yaml file > -p test-project.
• D. playbook apply feature -p < path to the yaml file > -t test-project.

Answer: B

Explanation:
ThreatPlaybook uses the playbook apply feature command to push user-story-driven threat models to the server. The -f flag specifies the path to the YAML file containing the defined user stories, abuser stories, and threat scenarios, while the -p flag specifies the target project. Option C correctly combines these parameters.
The -y flag is invalid in this context, and options that misuse -t instead of -p do not correctly identify the project destination. Executing this command during the Plan stage enables teams to integrate threat modeling early, ensuring security risks are identified and addressed before development and deployment proceed.

NEW QUESTION # 53
(James Harden has been working as a senior DevSecOps engineer in an IT company located in Oakland, California. To detect vulnerabilities and to evaluate attack vectors compromising web applications, he would like to integrate Burp Suite with Jenkins. He downloaded the Burp Suite Jenkins plugins and then uploaded the plugin and successfully integrated Burp Suite with Jenkins. After integration, he would like to scan web application using Burp Suite; therefore, he navigated to Jenkins' dashboard, opened an existing project, and clicked on Configure. Then, he navigated to the Build tab and selected Execute shell from Add build step.
Which of the following commands should James enter under the Execute shell?.)

• A. echo BURP_SCAN_URL =http://target-website.com.
• B. cat BURP_SCAN_URL =http://target-website.com.
• C. sudo BURP_SCAN_URL =http://target-website.com.
• D. grep BURP_SCAN_URL =http://target-website.com.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When
configuring Burp Suite scans in Jenkins using an Execute shell build step, environment variables are often set or echoed so that subsequent scan steps can consume them. The echo command is used to output or define values in the shell context. In this case, echo BURP_SCAN_URL = http://target-website.com correctly defines the target URL for Burp Suite scanning. Commands like grep and cat are used for searching or displaying file contents and are not appropriate for setting scan parameters. The sudo command is unnecessary and incorrect in this context. Using the correct shell command ensures that Burp Suite receives the proper target information during the Build and Test stage, enabling accurate dynamic application security testing.
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NEW QUESTION # 54
(Sandra Oliver joined SinClare Soft Pvt. Ltd. as a DevSecOps engineer in January of 2010. Her organization develops software and web applications related to the healthcare industry. Using IAST runtime security testing technology, she is detecting and diagnosing security issues in applications and APIs. The IAST solution used by Sandra encompasses a web scanner with an agent that works inside the server that hosts the application to provide additional analysis details such as the location of the vulnerability in the application code. Based on the given information, which of the following IAST solutions is Sandra using?)

• A. Passive IAST.
• B. Semi-passive IAST.
• C. Semi-active IAST.
• D. Active IAST.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Interactive Application Security Testing (IAST) solutions are classified based on how they interact with the application and runtime environment. In this scenario, the solution uses aweb scannerto actively send requests to the application while also deploying anagent inside the application serverto observe runtime behavior and map vulnerabilities directly to source code locations. This combined approach is known assemi- active IAST. It is considered "semi-active" because it actively drives traffic through the application using a scanner, while the agent passively observes execution paths, data flows, and method calls. Passive IAST solutions rely only on observing existing traffic and do not use scanners, while active IAST solutions do not typically rely on deep runtime agents in the same manner. Semi-active IAST significantly reduces false positives and provides precise remediation details, making it highly effective during the Build and Test stage, where applications are actively exercised and security issues can be identified and fixed before release.
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NEW QUESTION # 55
(Rahul Mehta is working as a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company that develops cloud-native web applications. His organization follows a strict DevSecOps practice and wants to ensure that third-party open- source dependencies used in the application do not introduce known security vulnerabilities. Rahul decided to integrate a Software Composition Analysis (SCA) tool into the CI pipeline so that every build is automatically scanned. During one of the builds, the SCA tool detects a critical vulnerability in a transitive dependency.
What should ideally happen in a mature DevSecOps pipeline when such a critical vulnerability is detected at build time?.)

• A. The pipeline should log the vulnerability details and continue the build to avoid delivery delays.
• B. The pipeline should fail the build and prevent the artifact from progressing further.
• C. The pipeline should notify the security team and continue with deploy-time checks.
• D. The pipeline should ignore transitive dependencies and only scan direct dependencies.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In a mature DevSecOps pipeline, security controls are enforced asgates, not merely as informational checks.
When an SCA tool detects acritical vulnerabilityin a dependency-whether direct or transitive-the correct response at the Build and Test stage is tofail the build. This prevents vulnerable artifacts from moving forward into later stages such as deployment or production, where remediation would be more expensive and risky. Allowing the build to continue, even with notifications, contradicts the shift-left security principle.
Ignoring transitive dependencies is also dangerous, as many real-world vulnerabilities originate from indirect libraries. Failing the build forces developers to remediate the issue immediately by upgrading, replacing, or mitigating the vulnerable dependency. This approach reduces attack surface, enforces accountability, and ensures that only secure artifacts are released. Therefore, stopping the pipeline upon detection of critical vulnerabilities reflects a strong DevSecOps maturity model and effective security governance.

NEW QUESTION # 56
(Peter McCarthy is working in TetraVerse Soft Solution Pvt. Ltd. as a DevSecOps engineer. His organization develops customized software products and web applications. To develop software products quickly and securely, his organization has been using AWS cloud-based services, including AWS DevOps services. Peter would like to use CloudMapper to examine the AWS cloud environment and perform auditing for security issues. Which of the following privileges should Peter possess in order to collect information about the AWS account?.)

• A. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/AWSLambdaFullAccess arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-role/ViewOnlyAccess.
• B. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/SecurityCheck arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-function/ViewOnlyAccess::
  EditOnlyAccess.
• C. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/SecurityAudit arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-function/ViewOnlyAccess.
• D. arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/SecurityAudit::SecurityCheck arn:aws:iam::aws:policy/job-role
  /ViewOnlyAccess:: EditOnlyAccess.

Answer: C

Explanation:
CloudMapper requires read-only access to AWS resources in order to collect metadata, visualize architectures, and perform security analysis without modifying infrastructure. The AWS-managed policy SecurityAuditprovides permissions to view security-related configuration across services, while ViewOnlyAccessallows read-only access to AWS resources more broadly. Together, these policies enable CloudMapper to gather comprehensive information about the AWS environment without granting write privileges. The other options either reference invalid policy names, incorrect formatting, or excessive permissions such as AWSLambdaFullAccess, which are unnecessary and violate least-privilege principles.
Granting SecurityAudit and ViewOnlyAccess aligns with secure auditing practices during the Operate and Monitor stage.
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NEW QUESTION # 57
(David Paymer has been working as a senior DevSecOps engineer in an IT company over the past 5 years. His organization is using Azure DevOps service to produce software products securely and quickly. David's team leader asked him to publish a NuGet package utilizing a command line. Imagine you are in David's place; which command would you use to publish NuGet package into the feed?.)

• A. nuget.exe publish -Source "< YOUR_FEED_NAME >" -ApiKey < ANY_STRING > < PACKAGE_PATH >.
• B. nuget.exe publish -Destination "< YOUR_FEED_NAME >" -ApiKey < ANY_STRING > < PACKAGE_PATH >.
• C. nuget.exe push -Source "< YOUR_FEED_NAME >" -ApiKey < ANY_STRING > < PACKAGE_PATH >.
• D. nuget.exe push -Destination "< YOUR_FEED_NAME >" -ApiKey < ANY_STRING > < PACKAGE_PATH >.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Publishing a NuGet package to a feed is done using the nuget.exe push command. The -Source parameter specifies the target feed name or URL, and the -ApiKey parameter is required even if the feed ignores its value. The publish verb is not used for NuGet package uploads, and -Destination is not a valid parameter for pushing packages. Therefore, nuget.exe push -Source "<YOUR_FEED_NAME>" -ApiKey
<ANY_STRING> <PACKAGE_PATH> is the correct command. Using command-line publishing supports automation and consistency in DevSecOps workflows, enabling secure and repeatable artifact distribution as part of continuous delivery pipelines.

NEW QUESTION # 58
(Charles Drew has been working as a DevSecOps team leader in an IT company located in Nashville, Tennessee. He would like to look at the applications from an attacker's perspective and make security a part of the organizations' culture. Imagine, you are working under Charles as a DevSecOps engineer. Charles has asked you to install ThreatPlaybook, which is a unified DevSecOps Framework that allows you to go from iterative, collaborative threat modeling to application security testing orchestration. After installation, you must configure ThreatPlaybook CLI; therefore, you have created a directory for the project and then you go to the current directory where you would like to configure ThreatPlaybook. Which of the following commands will you use to configure ThreatPlaybook? (Here, < your-email > represents your email id; < host info > represents IP address; and < port > represents the nginx port.))

• A. ThreatPlaybook configure -e < your-email > -h < host-info > -p < port >.
• B. playbook configure -e < your-email > -h < host-info > -p < port >.
• C. ThreatPlaybook configure -e < your-email > -u < host-info > -p < port >.
• D. playbook configure -e < your-email > -u < host-info > -p < port >.

Answer: A

Explanation:
ThreatPlaybook CLI is configured using the ThreatPlaybook configure command, which initializes the CLI with the required connection and user details. The -e option is used to specify the user's email address, the -h option defines the host information such as IP address or hostname, and the -p option specifies the port number. This configuration enables the CLI to securely communicate with the ThreatPlaybook service for orchestrating threat modeling and application security testing workflows. Options that use playbook configure are incorrect because the executable name is explicitly ThreatPlaybook. Options using -u instead of -h do not correctly specify host information. Configuring ThreatPlaybook during the Plan stage helps teams adopt an attacker's mindset early, embedding security into the organization's culture and ensuring threats are identified and addressed before development and deployment activities begin.
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NEW QUESTION # 59
(Rockmond Dunbar is a senior DevSecOps engineer in a software development company. His organization develops customized software for retail industries. Rockmond would like to avoid setting mount propagation mode to share until it is required because when a volume is mounted in shared mode, it does not limit other containers to mount and modify that volume. If mounted volume is sensitive to changes, then it would be a serious security concern. Which of the following commands should Rockmond run to list out the propagation mode for mounted volumes?.)

• A. docker ps -quiet -all | xargs docker inspect -format ': Propagation'.
• B. docker ps --quiet --all | xargs docker inspect --format ': Propagation'.
• C. docker ps -quiet -all | xargs docker inspect -format ': Propagation='.
• D. docker ps --quiet --all | xargs docker inspect --format ': Propagation='.

Answer: D

Explanation:
To inspect mount propagation modes for Docker containers, Rockmond needs to list all container IDs and then inspect their configuration. The docker ps --quiet --all command outputs container IDs only, which are then passed to docker inspect using xargs. The --format option allows extraction of specific fields, such as mount propagation settings. Option C correctly uses valid flags (--quiet --all) and proper formatting syntax.
Options A and D incorrectly use single hyphens, and option B omits the equals sign, which is required to display the propagation value. Inspecting mount propagation during the Operate and Monitor stage helps prevent unintended privilege escalation or data modification by other containers, aligning with container hardening best practices.
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NEW QUESTION # 60
(Andrew Gerrard has recently joined an IT company located in Fairmont, California, as a DevSecOps engineer. Due to robust security and cost-effective service provided by AWS, his organization has migrated all the workloads from on-prem to AWS cloud in January of 2020. Andrew's team leader has asked him to integrate AWS Secret Manager with Jenkins. To do so, Andrew installed the "AWS Secret Manager Credentials provider" plugin in Jenkins and configured an IAM policy in AWS that allows Jenkins to take secrets from AWS Secret manager. Which of the following file should Andrew edit to add access id and secret key parameters along with the region copied from AWS?.)

• A. /etc/sysconfig file/Jenkins.
• B. /etc/filebeat/filebeat.yml.
• C. /etc/file/Jenkins.
• D. /etc/sysconfig/Jenkins.

Answer: D

Explanation:
On Linux systems, Jenkins environment variables such as AWS access key ID, secret access key, and default region are commonly configured in the /etc/sysconfig/Jenkins file. This file allows administrators to define environment variables that are loaded when the Jenkins service starts. By placing AWS credentials and region information in this file, Jenkins jobs and plugins-such as the AWS Secrets Manager Credentials Provider- can securely access AWS resources. The other options reference invalid paths or unrelated configuration files (such as Filebeat). Editing /etc/sysconfig/Jenkins ensures consistent credential availability across Jenkins jobs while supporting secure integration with AWS services during the Code stage.

NEW QUESTION # 61
(Victor Garber is a DevSecOps team leader in SanSec Pvt. Ltd. His organization develops various types of software products and web applications. Currently, his team is working on security of Java-based web application product. How can Victor identify vulnerabilities that are missed in pre-production testing activities?.)

• A. By performing commit-time checks.
• B. By performing deploy-time checks.
• C. By performing test-time checks.
• D. By performing build-time checks.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Deploy-time checks are designed to identify vulnerabilities that may not surface during earlier stages such as commit-time, build-time, or test-time checks. These checks analyze applications in environments that closely resemble or are part of production, making it possible to detect configuration issues, runtime vulnerabilities, and environment-specific weaknesses. Pre-production testing often cannot fully replicate production conditions, so deploy-time checks act as an additional safety net. Commit-time and build-time checks focus on code quality and static analysis, while test-time checks validate application behavior in controlled environments. Deploy-time checks therefore help Victor uncover vulnerabilities missed earlier, improving overall security assurance before or during deployment.
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NEW QUESTION # 62
(SNF Pvt. Ltd. is a software development company located in Denver, Colorado. The organization is using pytm, which is a Pythonic Framework for threat modeling, to detect security issues and mitigate them in advance. James Harden has been working as a DevSecOps engineer at SNF Pvt. Ltd. for the past 3 years. He has created a tm.py file that describes an application in which the user logs the app and posts the comments on the applications. These comments are stored by the application server in the database and AWS lambda cleans the database. Which of the following command James can use to generate a sequence diagram?)

• A. tm.py --seq | java -Djava.awt.headless=true -jar plantum.jar -tpng -pipe > seq.png.
• B. tm.py --seq | java -Djava.awt.headless=true -jar plantuml.jar -tpng -pipe > seq.png.
• C. tm.py --seq | java -djava.awt.headless=true -jar plantuml.jar -tpng -pipe > seq.png.
• D. tm.py --seq | java -djava.awt.headless=true -jar plantum.jar -tpng -pipe > seq.png.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The pytm framework generates threat models that can be visualized using PlantUML diagrams. To create a sequence diagram, the --seq option is used with the model file, and the output is piped to the PlantUML processor. The correct command must reference the correct Java system property -Djava.awt.headless=true, which allows diagram rendering in environments without a graphical interface, such as CI/CD pipelines.
Additionally, the correct jar file name is plantuml.jar. Options using lowercase -d instead of uppercase -D are invalid, and commands referencing plantum.jar are incorrect due to a misspelled jar name. Generating sequence diagrams during the Plan stage helps DevSecOps teams visualize data flows, understand attacker paths, and identify security threats early in the application design phase.
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NEW QUESTION # 63
(Brady Coleman is a senior DevSecOps engineer at CloudVac Security Private Ltd. He has created a new container named "eccbrad" from the centos:7 image using the command docker run -i -t --name geeklab centos:7 /bin/bash. Now, Brady wants to install the httpd package inside the eccbrad container. Which of the following commands should Brady use to install the httpd package inside the container?)

• A. sudo install-httpd.
• B. yum install-httpd.
• C. yum install httpd.
• D. sudo install httpd.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CentOS operating system uses theyumpackage manager to install software packages. Inside a CentOS- based Docker container, the correct way to install the Apache HTTP Server is by running yum install httpd.
Containers typically run as the root user by default, making the use of sudo unnecessary. Commands such as install-httpd are invalid because yum requires the install keyword followed by the package name separated by a space. Installing required packages inside containers should be done carefully to avoid bloating images and increasing the attack surface. During the Operate and Monitor stage, DevSecOps teams must balance functionality with container hardening best practices by installing only necessary components.
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NEW QUESTION # 64
(Alexander Hamilton has been working as a senior DevSecOps engineer in an IT company located in Greenville, South Carolina. In January of 2012, his organization because a victim of a cyber security attack and incurred a tremendous loss. Alexander's organization immediately adopted AWS cloud-based services after the attack to develop robust software products securely and quickly. To detect security issues in code review, Alexander would like to integrate SonarQube with AWS Pipeline; therefore, he created a pipeline in AWS using CloudFormation pipeline template. Then, he selected SonarQube tool from the tools dropdown, provided the required stack parameters, and also provided email address for receiving email notifications of changes in pipeline status and approvals. He deployed the pipeline after entering the required information.
What will happen when changes are committed in the application repository?.)

• A. Cloud Config event is created.
• B. BinSkim event is created.
• C. CloudWatch event is created.
• D. Security Hub event is created.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When changes are committed to a repository connected to an AWS Pipeline, the pipeline execution is triggered and monitored usingAmazon CloudWatch events. CloudWatch captures pipeline state changes, execution status, and approval notifications, enabling real-time monitoring and alerting. AWS Config tracks resource configuration changes, BinSkim is a binary analysis tool, and Security Hub aggregates security findings but does not directly track pipeline execution events. Integrating SonarQube into AWS Pipeline ensures static code analysis runs automatically upon commits, while CloudWatch provides visibility into pipeline activity. This setup strengthens security automation during the Code stage by ensuring every commit is analyzed and monitored.
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NEW QUESTION # 65
(SinCaire is a software development company that develops web applications for various clients. To measure the successful implementation of DevSecOps, the organization enforced U.S. General Service Administrator (GSA) high-value DevSecOps metrics. Which of the following metrics implemented by SinCaire can measure the time between the code commit and production, and tracks the bug fix and new features throughout the development, testing, and production phases?)

• A. Time to value.
• B. Mean time to recovery (for applications).
• C. Change volume (for application).
• D. Change lead time (for application).

Answer: D

Explanation:
Change lead time measures the duration between a code commit and its successful deployment into production. This metric tracks how efficiently new features, bug fixes, and changes move through development, testing, and release stages. It is a key DevSecOps performance indicator used to assess pipeline efficiency and the effectiveness of automation and security integration. Mean time to recovery focuses on restoring service after incidents, change volume measures the number of changes rather than delivery speed, and time to value is a broader business metric. Change lead time directly reflects how well DevSecOps practices enable rapid yet secure delivery, making it the correct metric for measuring commit-to-production flow across all phases.
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NEW QUESTION # 66
(Debra Aniston is a DevSecOps engineer in an IT company that develops software products and web applications. Her team has found various coding issues in the application code. Debra would like to fix coding issues before they exist. She recommended a DevSecOps tool to the software developer team that highlights bugs and security vulnerabilities with clear remediation guidance, which helps in fixing security issues before the code is committed. Based on the information given, which of the following tools has Debra recommended to the software development team?)

• A. Arachni.
• B. OWASP ZAP.
• C. SonarLint.
• D. Tenable.io.

Answer: C

Explanation:
SonarLint is a static code analysis tool designed specifically to be used inside developers' IDEs, where it provides immediate feedback while code is being written. It highlights bugs, security vulnerabilities, and code smells and, importantly, providesclear remediation guidancethat explains why an issue exists and how it can be fixed. This aligns directly with Debra's requirement to fix issues "before they exist," meaning before code is committed to the repository. Arachni and OWASP ZAP are dynamic application security testing tools that require a running application and are typically used later in the pipeline. Tenable.io is a vulnerability management platform focused on infrastructure and application scanning rather than real-time developer feedback. By using SonarLint, developers receive continuous guidance during coding, supporting the shift-left security approach in DevSecOps and reducing the cost and effort of fixing vulnerabilities later in the lifecycle.
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NEW QUESTION # 67
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